“The love of Christ constraineth us,” Paul says, “because we have thus judged, that one died for all, therefore all died.” Those are rather strange words, when you come to think of it—“One died for all, therefore all died.” How does the second of these two propositions follow from the former? Why should we draw from the fact that one died for all the inference that therefore all died? A very different inference might conceivably be drawn. It might be said with more apparent show of reason: “One died for all, therefore all did not die; one died for all, therefore all lived.” When one man dies for others, the usual purpose of his dying is that those others may not have to die; he dies that those others may live.
Yet here we have it said that one died for all and then all died. Apparently the death of Christ did no good to those for whom he died. Apparently he did not succeed in rescuing them from death. Apparently they had to die after all.
It might look at least as though Paul ought to have recognized the contradiction. It might look as though he ought to have said: “One died for all, nevertheless all died.” But he does not recognize the contradiction at all. He puts the death of Christ not as something that might conceivably prevent the death of others, but as something that actually brought with it the death of others. He says not: “One died for all, nevertheless all died,” but: “One died for all, therefore all died.” The thing might seem strange to the unbeliever; it might seem strange to the man who should come to this passage without having read the rest of the Bible and in particular the rest of the Epistles of Paul. But it does not seem at all strange to the Christian; it does not seem at all strange to the man who reads it in connection with the great central teaching of the Word of God regarding the Cross of Christ.
Christ died for all, therefore all died—of course, that is so because Christ was the representative of all when he died. The death that he died on the cross was in itself the death of all. Since Christ was the representative of all, therefore all may have been said to have died there on the cross outside the walls of Jerusalem when Christ died.
We may imagine a dialogue between the law of God and a sinful man.
“Man,” says the law of God, “have you obeyed my commands?”
“No,” says the sinner, “I have transgressed them in thought, word and deed.”
“Well, then, sinner,” says the law, “have you paid the penalty which I have pronounced upon those who have disobeyed? Have you died in the sense that 1 meant when I said, ‘The soul that sinneth it shall die’?”
“Yes,” says the sinner, “I have died. That penalty that you pronounced upon my sin has been paid.”
“What do you mean,” says the law, “by saying that you have died? You do not look as though you had died. You look as though you were very much alive.”
“Yes,” says the sinner, “I have died. I died there on the cross outside the walls of Jerusalem; for Jesus died there as my representative and my substitute. I died there so far as the penalty of the law was concerned.”
“You say Christ is your representative and substitute,” says the law. “Then I have indeed no further claim of penalty against you. The curse which I pronounced against your sin has indeed been fulfilled. My threatenings are very terrible, but I have nothing to say against those for whom Christ died.”
That, my friends, is what Paul means by the tremendous “therefore,” when he says: “One died for all, therefore all died.” On that “therefore” hangs all our hope for time and for eternity.
For Whom Did Christ Die? But what does he mean by “all”? “One died for all,” he says, “therefore all died.” He seems to lay considerable emphasis upon that word “all.” What does he mean by it?
Well, I suppose our Christian brethren in other churches, our Christian brethren who are opposed to the Reformed Faith, might be tempted to make that word “all” mean, in this passage, “all men”; they might be tempted to make it refer to the whole human race. They might be tempted to interpret the words “Christ died for all” to mean “Christ died for all men everywhere whether Christians or not.”
But if they are tempted to make it mean that, they ought to resist the temptation, since this passage is really a very dangerous passage for them to lay stress on in support of their view.
In the first place, the context is dead against it. It is rather strongly against the view that “Christ died for all” means here “Christ died for all men.” All through this passage Paul is speaking not of the relation of Christ to all men, but of the relation of Christ to the Church.
In the second place, the view that “Christ died for all” means “Christ died for all men” proves too much. The things that Paul says in this passage about those for whom Christ died do not fit those who merely have the gospel offered to them; they fit only those who accept the gospel for the salvation of their souls. Can it be said of all men, including those who reject the gospel or have never heard it, that they died when Christ died on the crass; can it be said of them that they no longer live unto themselves but unto the Christ who died for them? Surely these things cannot be said of all men, and therefore the word “all” does not mean all men.
Yet here we have it said that one died for all and then all died. Apparently the death of Christ did no good to those for whom he died. Apparently he did not succeed in rescuing them from death. Apparently they had to die after all.
It might look at least as though Paul ought to have recognized the contradiction. It might look as though he ought to have said: “One died for all, nevertheless all died.” But he does not recognize the contradiction at all. He puts the death of Christ not as something that might conceivably prevent the death of others, but as something that actually brought with it the death of others. He says not: “One died for all, nevertheless all died,” but: “One died for all, therefore all died.” The thing might seem strange to the unbeliever; it might seem strange to the man who should come to this passage without having read the rest of the Bible and in particular the rest of the Epistles of Paul. But it does not seem at all strange to the Christian; it does not seem at all strange to the man who reads it in connection with the great central teaching of the Word of God regarding the Cross of Christ.
Christ died for all, therefore all died—of course, that is so because Christ was the representative of all when he died. The death that he died on the cross was in itself the death of all. Since Christ was the representative of all, therefore all may have been said to have died there on the cross outside the walls of Jerusalem when Christ died.
We may imagine a dialogue between the law of God and a sinful man.
“Man,” says the law of God, “have you obeyed my commands?”
“No,” says the sinner, “I have transgressed them in thought, word and deed.”
“Well, then, sinner,” says the law, “have you paid the penalty which I have pronounced upon those who have disobeyed? Have you died in the sense that 1 meant when I said, ‘The soul that sinneth it shall die’?”
“Yes,” says the sinner, “I have died. That penalty that you pronounced upon my sin has been paid.”
“What do you mean,” says the law, “by saying that you have died? You do not look as though you had died. You look as though you were very much alive.”
“Yes,” says the sinner, “I have died. I died there on the cross outside the walls of Jerusalem; for Jesus died there as my representative and my substitute. I died there so far as the penalty of the law was concerned.”
“You say Christ is your representative and substitute,” says the law. “Then I have indeed no further claim of penalty against you. The curse which I pronounced against your sin has indeed been fulfilled. My threatenings are very terrible, but I have nothing to say against those for whom Christ died.”
That, my friends, is what Paul means by the tremendous “therefore,” when he says: “One died for all, therefore all died.” On that “therefore” hangs all our hope for time and for eternity.
For Whom Did Christ Die? But what does he mean by “all”? “One died for all,” he says, “therefore all died.” He seems to lay considerable emphasis upon that word “all.” What does he mean by it?
Well, I suppose our Christian brethren in other churches, our Christian brethren who are opposed to the Reformed Faith, might be tempted to make that word “all” mean, in this passage, “all men”; they might be tempted to make it refer to the whole human race. They might be tempted to interpret the words “Christ died for all” to mean “Christ died for all men everywhere whether Christians or not.”
But if they are tempted to make it mean that, they ought to resist the temptation, since this passage is really a very dangerous passage for them to lay stress on in support of their view.
In the first place, the context is dead against it. It is rather strongly against the view that “Christ died for all” means here “Christ died for all men.” All through this passage Paul is speaking not of the relation of Christ to all men, but of the relation of Christ to the Church.
In the second place, the view that “Christ died for all” means “Christ died for all men” proves too much. The things that Paul says in this passage about those for whom Christ died do not fit those who merely have the gospel offered to them; they fit only those who accept the gospel for the salvation of their souls. Can it be said of all men, including those who reject the gospel or have never heard it, that they died when Christ died on the crass; can it be said of them that they no longer live unto themselves but unto the Christ who died for them? Surely these things cannot be said of all men, and therefore the word “all” does not mean all men.